Answer 25

25.  Choice B is the correct answer.  The most common cause of a pseudoaneurysm is trauma to the blood vessel.  Atherosclerosis is the main cause of traditional aneurysm.  Cirrhosis and right heart failure are things that increase venous pressure not arterial and would not cause aneurysms of any kind.

Question 25

25.  Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an pseudoaneurysm?

A.  Atherosclerosis
B.  Central Line Insertion
C.  Cirrhosis
D.  Right Heart Failure

Answer 24

24.  Choice A is the correct answer.  The "P's" of arterial occlusion are:  pain, pulselessness, paresthesias, pallor, and paralysis.

Question 24

24.  Which of the following is not considered a "P" of arterial occlusion?

A.  Purple
B.  Pulselessness
C.  Paresthesias
D.  Pallor

Answer 23

23.  Choice C is the correct answer.  This patient is in complete heart block or third degree AV block.  It is characterized by complete AV dissociation.  The P waves and QRS complexes don't have any relationship.  The P waves and QRS complexes will march out with calipers equal distance.  Atropine has not really shown to be effective and was taken out of ACLS protocols.  Epinephrine would only be indicated if there was no pulse. Digoxin may make the patient worse worse since he is bradycardic already.

Question 23

23.  Your patient is a 64 year old male that presents with near syncope and palpitations.  His EKG strip is below.  Which of the following is the best therapeutic intervention?

A.  Atropine
B.  Epinephrine
C.  Arrange for Pacemaker
D.  Start Digoxin

Answer 22

22.  D is the correct answer.  Varicose veins are not considered part of Virchow's Triad.  Virchow's Triad is hypercoagulable state, venous, stasis and venous injury.  

Question 22

22.  Which of the following is not considered part of Virchow's triad?

A.  Hypercoagulable State
B.  Venous Stasis
C.  Venous Injury
D.  Varicose Veins

Answer 21

21.  Choice B is the correct answer.  Beta blocker therapy helps reduce the influence of catecholamines on an aneurysm and have been shown to be of benefit.  A TEE is not necessary at this point.  The patient has already had a CT with IV contrast which is adequate to screen for dissection.  This patient does not need to immediately go to surgery.  He is showing no signs of rupture or dissection and is not symptomatic.

Question 21

21.  Your patient is a 65 year old male that presents with a 4.3 cm Thoracic Aneurysm discovered on CT scan with IV contrast.  He has been having atypical chest pain and this was found as an incidental finding.  Which of the following is the best management option?

A.  Order a transesophageal ECHO (TEE) to screen for a dissection
B.  Start on Beta Blocker Therapy and refer to Cardiothoracic Surgery
C.  Refer the patient to Cardiothoracic surgery
D.  Recommend the patient be taken to surgery for immediate repair