Sunday, December 1, 2013

Answer 25

25.  Choice B is the correct answer.  The most common cause of a pseudoaneurysm is trauma to the blood vessel.  Atherosclerosis is the main cause of traditional aneurysm.  Cirrhosis and right heart failure are things that increase venous pressure not arterial and would not cause aneurysms of any kind.



Question 25

25.  Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an pseudoaneurysm?

A.  Atherosclerosis
B.  Central Line Insertion
C.  Cirrhosis
D.  Right Heart Failure


Answer 24

24.  Choice A is the correct answer.  The "P's" of arterial occlusion are:  pain, pulselessness, paresthesias, pallor, and paralysis.


Question 24

24.  Which of the following is not considered a "P" of arterial occlusion?

A.  Purple
B.  Pulselessness
C.  Paresthesias
D.  Pallor

Answer 23

23.  Choice C is the correct answer.  This patient is in complete heart block or third degree AV block.  It is characterized by complete AV dissociation.  The P waves and QRS complexes don't have any relationship.  The P waves and QRS complexes will march out with calipers equal distance.  Atropine has not really shown to be effective and was taken out of ACLS protocols.  Epinephrine would only be indicated if there was no pulse. Digoxin may make the patient worse worse since he is bradycardic already.



Question 23

23.  Your patient is a 64 year old male that presents with near syncope and palpitations.  His EKG strip is below.  Which of the following is the best therapeutic intervention?



A.  Atropine
B.  Epinephrine
C.  Arrange for Pacemaker
D.  Start Digoxin